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Sep 18, 2021 at 8:44 vote accept monke
Sep 17, 2021 at 15:57 history edited Pieter Wuille CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 17, 2021 at 13:08 comment added Pieter Wuille The analogy I've used in the past (when this question came up about converting P2PKH to P2WPKH) was that it's like someone "paying" you by at night coming to dig a hole in your lawn and bury an enveloppe with money there. Sure, the money is there, on the receiver's property. But the receiver might not even notice it's there unless you tell them. Similarly, with such converted addresses, the receiver likely won't even recognize it as a payment to them.
Sep 17, 2021 at 12:59 comment added Murch Well, yes, a receiver could craft an arbitrary script and communicate that script's address representation in order to get paid. The sender unilaterally making unsupported assumptions how they may change the instructions to pay the receiver will certainly lead to conflict, if not outright lost funds.--Imagine you're running a restaurant in the US and when you bring the bill, the customer pays in Euros instead. Would you accept that?
Sep 17, 2021 at 12:54 comment added Pieter Wuille Yes, but that'd be very inefficient. You can't construct a P2TR address that uses the key path (as you need the X coordinate of the public key, not just its 160-bit hash) given just a P2(W)PKH address.
Sep 17, 2021 at 7:21 comment added monke Aren't you supposed to be able use an arbitrary redeem script? Surely there's a way to P2TR wrap P2SH-like script (which itself can wrap P2PKH).
Sep 16, 2021 at 21:33 history edited Pieter Wuille CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 16, 2021 at 19:51 history answered Pieter Wuille CC BY-SA 4.0