# How can bitcoin be finite? [closed]

Even if a finite number of coins exist if it can be split up by sending out .000001 per say than I don't see how that wouldn't be infinate money. Because lets say you have one bitcoin that is worth 1 dollar and I sold you something that only cost one penny than your saying I would recive 0.01 Bitcoin. So then wouldn't I have a bitcoin too just one worth a penny. We would have created a new coin? Or are you saying that only 26 million people will ever be able to use the currency at one time? Not trying to agrue I just would like to know. =)

## closed as not a real question by Stéphane Gimenez, Nick ODell, o0'., cdecker, eMansipaterApr 17 '13 at 7:34

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• No, you'd have 1/100 of a bitcoin, and I'd have 99/100 of a bitcoin. – Nick ODell Apr 11 '13 at 21:08
• In theory than wouldn't you be able to pay a hundred people "0.01" for a hundred items. (now you have no bit-coin) Than Those 100 people could do the same for ever and ever, if their was no limit on how many points you could go out. Your splitting new money each time you split your sum value. Effectively inflating the bit-coin. Wouldn't 26 million bit-coins split in half make 52 million half dollar (value) bit-coins. That to me sounds like the vary definition of inflation! – Kenneth Apr 11 '13 at 21:49
• What your telling me is that you could have hundreads of owners for one coin, only each person is each owning a fraction of the same coin at the same time? (wow) – Kenneth Apr 11 '13 at 21:54
• Wait .. are you suggesting that you can split bitcoins indefinitly? No you can't; there's a limit (I don't know it - read the docs). – hasen Apr 11 '13 at 22:05
• `only each person is each owning a fraction of the same coin at the same time? ` Bitcoins are an entirely arbitrary unit. The underlying protocol deals entirely with hundred millionths of a bitcoin. You could just as easily say that multiple people owned fractions of the same kilobitcoin. – Nick ODell Apr 11 '13 at 22:12